• danA
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    10 days ago

    I don’t understand how the Senate can block a Californian law. Aren’t states supposed to have the autonomy to make their own laws?

    • Brkdncr@lemmy.world
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      10 days ago

      I believe it’s because CA’s laws would become the defacto law due to how much control it has over the auto market.

      • Uniquitous@lemmy.one
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        9 days ago

        This. AKA the interstate commerce clause. Unfortunately the argument is not without merit.

      • danA
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        10 days ago

        Can’t states have laws that are stricter than federal law though? California has a lot of laws that are stricter than federal laws, for example tighter regulation of guns, better worker protection (for things like overtime and rest breaks), etc. I don’t get how laws about cars are any different.

        • treadful@lemmy.zip
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          9 days ago

          From TFA:

          The same goes for the Senate’s vote to block California’s program banning gas-guzzlers by 2035. The state has the power to do this under a long-standing waiver to the Clean Air Act allowing it to set its own emissions standards.

          In this case, California was utilizing a federal law to effectively ban ICE vehicles and Congress closed that “loop hole.”

          State laws are wholly operating within federal law, insofar as the federal government has the authority granted to it by the constitution to do so. Anything not granted to the federal government is defacto state territory according to their constitution.

          I’m not the guy to really explain your specific questions though. Most of that has to do with a long history of legal precedent and constitutional law over hundreds of years.