Please explain my confused me like I’m 5 (0r 4 or 6).

  • sylver_dragon@lemmy.world
    link
    fedilink
    English
    arrow-up
    21
    ·
    7 months ago

    Probably worth noting that the Gregorian Calendar was an invention of the 16th Century. It was invented to deal with the problems of the Julian Calendar and the creators would have had a firm understanding of the concept of zero. The AD/BC split was all about the assumed year of the birth of Jesus of Nazareth (according to Christian mythology). The year of his birth was set as the first year Anno Domini or “The year of the Lord”. Or the first year where Jesus was kicking about. The year prior to that would therefore be the first year before “Before Christ” was alive, and therefore the year 1 BC.

    • idiomaddict@feddit.de
      link
      fedilink
      arrow-up
      2
      ·
      7 months ago

      Especially weird considering that Christmas has been set to December for a long time, so 98% of year 1 AD was actually before the ostensible birth of Christ (I know that scholars now think he was born in April or something, but they probably didn’t always)

      • sylver_dragon@lemmy.world
        link
        fedilink
        English
        arrow-up
        1
        ·
        7 months ago

        Ultimately, they had to set the calendar’s dates based on something. Given the vast hold on Europe which Christianity had at the time, it’s not surprising that the starting date was based on such an important event in the mythology. However, trying to deviate too far from the currently understood order (the Julian Calendar) was likely to end in failure. So, they could either fight the tide of history or just accept a logical oddity. Given all the other logical oddities one must accept for supernatural belief, who’s going to complain about having a holy reason to eat, drink and be merry during one of the most terrible parts of the year?